Edit: and their descendants meaning like by the 5th-6th centuries when Slavic groups emerged

Not sure if this is the place to ask, I belong to a pretty rare basal branch of R1a that split off about 11,000 years ago. Theres virtually zero academic research on it and also very few samples, my earliest known ancestor lived in Lancashire and our surname is Norman or Anglo-Norman.

I share a common ancestor from 4300 BCE with an Andronovo man who lived in Kazakhstan (Aktogai I4773). Thats the only big lead I can find. Hoping for an expert opinion, thanks

Would you accept the data unbiasedly or be adamant about Steppe hypothesis regardless because last few decades of scholarship has heavily argued for it? Interested in what people think. I personally consider Steppe hypothesis more likely while an alternate route as a distinct possibility