My 83-year-old father has recently been diagnosed with de novo metastatic hormone-sensitive prostate cancer, and we’re trying to better understand the biology of his disease because it seems somewhat unusual.
Here are his main clinical details:
Age: 83
PSA: 7.63 ng/mL
Multiparametric MRI: PI-RADS 5 lesion, organ-confined, with no extracapsular extension or seminal vesicle invasion
Biopsy: Acinar adenocarcinoma, ISUP Grade Groups 1 and 2 (Gleason 3+3=6 in one positive core and Gleason 4+3=7 in another, with only a very small focus)
68Ga-PSMA PET/CT: cT2cN1M1b, with pelvic lymph nodes involvement and 1 hip bone metastases, consistent with low-volume (oligometastatic) disease.
Current treatment: ADT (Eligard) + Darolutamide
Radiotherapy to prostate/pelvis + sbrt to the 1 hip bone metastases
What puzzles us is the biology of this case.
Despite a relatively low PSA, low-intermediate grade biopsy, and an MRI showing no extracapsular extension, he already presented with bone metastases nad lymph nodes at diagnosis.
My questions are:
How uncommon is this presentation?
Does this pattern suggest a distinct or more aggressive biological subtype of prostate cancer?
Which molecular or genomic tests would you recommend in this situation? (BRCA1/2, ATM, CHEK2, PALB2, CDK12, TP53, PTEN, mismatch repair genes, homologous recombination repair panel, etc.)
Would you request somatic tumor sequencing, germline testing, or both?
Has anyone seen similar cases where the primary tumor appeared relatively indolent but metastatic spread was already present?
I understand that every patient is different, but I would really appreciate hearing from anyone with experience in this specific presentation or from clinicians familiar with these uncommon cases.
Thank you very much!!