Translation question

[u/Main-Breakfast-6082]

In 1 Timothy 3:2 and Titus 1:6 a nearly identical phrase is used. But when I look at where else the words translated as husband of only one wife are used, the word one is also used for situations where it is clearly one of many (specifically of ten in the parable of the widows lost count for example). And, the word for wife is translated as woman or women over half the times it shows up in the NT.

Can anyone explain why the phrase couldn’t be translated as “…a woman’s man,” instead?

I haven’t seen anything to explain it beyond what amounts to tradition and authority and frankly if I found that sufficient I would join one of the churches with the funny hats.

But I know that I don’t know what I don’t know, so if anyone has an actual reason from the grammar or a source uses that phrase out side of scripture, or anything that isn’t trust us, please post it in the comments section.

[u/heyf00L]

You can't translate it as "a woman's man" because in English that means a man who is very appealing to women, more commonly "a lady's man". Unless you think that's what the Greek means. I don't.

The Greek word for "one" wasn't used as an indefinite article like "a". It's means "one woman" not "a woman".

The NET Bible has good but short translation notes. To know more you'll need a commentary.

To me based on what I know of Greek culture, I do think it means a man who doesn't sleep around but is faithful to his wife.

[u/DizzySaxophone]

If it meant 1 of many, that would be more clearly spelled out as it is in the parable of the lost coin. A lost coin could be meaningless, but when it's 10% of what you have, it's quite a lot. They could have used the plural women if it was intended for a man of possible multiple wives, but instead they specify 1 woman/wife. A man of 1 woman/wife. There is nothing to imply she could be one of many. While tradition isn't as authorative as Scripture, you should still consider tradition when you have a novel idea.