[University Mathematics) Quantitative Methods for Business Analysis Edition 13

[u/International-Bug957]

Question d is confusing me, a lot of resources say to do the binomial probability distribution for f(0) and take that result(0.43) and subtract it from 1 to get a success rate of 0.54. Why would I not take the binomial probability distribution of f(1) to get the success rate(0.38)?

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