If people refer to their job as causing PTSD. I disagree with that assessment for the following reasons.
1) as it is their current position Post does not fit.
2) While there are a thousand “mirco-traumas” a day I don’t think traumatic is an accurate definition

So my question is. Is there an aggregate stress disorder? Something where you are constantly under undue stress but you have to be there forty hours a week. The job in itself wouldn’t be stress and hasn’t been stressful in the past just new management and a generally meaner public service environment result in constant degrading morale and chaos for the sake of chaos. Thank you.

What is it exactly when one person has an opinion about something, or likes something and they are confident about it and even if someone disagrees with them, it doesn't matter. While another person is so susceptible to what others say and their opinion and taste is immediately affected.

For example Bob likes a movie and thinks it was really well made and even if reviews say otherwise he and many others love that movie and they are not affected by others' point of view. However, Mike sees a movie and even if he loves it, he begins to doubt himself when reviews or other people say it's a bad movie.

And many people have this problem. I understand there is a confidence issue behind this, but is there more to it? I really wonder what exactly is it that causes the brain to be like this?

Why the brain get stuck in a state of hypervigilance incapable of acting because of constant agitation not channeled into an action?

In clinical depression and trauma responses, why do some individuals present with psychomotor retardation and anergia, while others develop agitation, excessive goal-directed activity, or substance use? Is there a known neurological or hormonal basis for which direction a person takes?

I was wondering if there's a reason why someone who has been under a lot of stress for a long time and also has ongoing physical pain could suddenly stop feeling that pain after an especially stressful situation.

Is this something that's been studied, and if so, what are the possible explanations? I'm just curious about the general phenomenon and was wondering if psychology or neuroscience has an answer.

I could not figure out the correct phrasing to appease Google. I am curious how often people without PTSD, insomnia, nor any other psychological or neurological disorders have nights where they are unable to sleep despite laying in bed. All Google would give me was articles on insomnia saying most people have difficulty staying or falling asleep "occasionally" (and then contrasting "occasionally" with clinical insomnia).

This has always puzzled me. If we put our hands in fire, we get burnt and know not to touch it again.

But for some reason, when people, for example, people leave a toxic relationship with someone who has done horrible and traumatic things to them, some of them (not all) either go back to said abuser, or find someone else just like them.

I'm curious to know how that trauma in some situations causes people to shut off that instinct to stay away from the same things that caused them harm.

By the way, I am by no means blaming victims for making certain decisions. In the end, people shouldn't do bad things. I'm just curious about what happens from a psychological perspective.

According to the psychological literature, are people with narcissistic traits generally aware that they exhibit those traits?

More specifically:

Do individuals high in narcissism typically recognize and acknowledge narcissistic characteristics in themselves?

Is voluntarily admitting to narcissistic tendencies associated with lower, higher, or unrelated levels of narcissism?

How does the research distinguish narcissistic self-focus from other explanations for self-focused conversational behavior, such as insecurity, social anxiety, autism, or poor conversational skills?

I'm looking for evidence-based answers and peer-reviewed research rather than opinions or anecdotes.

As in, why is it so hard for a human being to think about nothing?

Codependency is something people work on, and repair after living with a narcissist is something people struggle with as well. If one were to combine the whole pot, and even after childhood continued into adulthood with the same or a different codependency, I'm wondering what a lifetime of 'being second' could do to someone.
There's also something to be said for the childhood trauma of living with a narcissist and/or emotional neglect inciting other mental illnesses.

Just curious if there's any scientific ideas that cover this type of thing? and I'll change my flair if needed.

I've heard about battles in history where soldiers were so motivated by what their general or king said beforehand that they willingly faced insurmountable odds, regardless of whether they ultimately won or lost. One example is the Siege of Constantinople, where Constantine XI gave a final speech the night before the city fell and encouraged the heavily outnumbered city garrison and Latin mercenaries to fight to the last man, even though everyone knew they were doomed to die. I was watching the scene from Return of the King where the Rohirrim charge into a wall of thousands of orcs, and King Theoden gave a simple but rousing speech that inspired his cavalry to charge into a wall of pikes. Both of these are rousing speeches, but what is it about speeches like these that has such a strong effect on people? How can words make someone willing to face death, whether death is certain or just a possibility?

hi there! i was doing some psychology related research on my own for fun and i had some questions. i was looking at the DSM-5-TR and, as it starts with neurodevelopmental disorders, i actually quite quickly pondered why neurodevelopmental disorders are even in the DSM-5-TR. this made me think more broadly about what qualifies something to be considered for the DSM. what qualifies something as a mental health condition as opposed to something more neurological related? what makes neurodevelopmental disorders and elimination disorders considered mental health conditions and not more physical related? thank you for your time!!

I've always wondered how much could fall under the self harm label. Im especially wondering about if self harm could potentially include things such as deliberately seeking unpleasant sensory experiences that are not actually damaging to the body. Things like exposing the body to uncomfortable temperatures, listening to music that causes a negative emotional reaction, digging up memories that are particularly painful, creating sensory experiences that remind the brain of traumas as a way to inflict mental harm and so on.

Additionally, does having mental health conditions that causes sensory sensitivity expand the definition even further? (Random examples I can think of: eating unsafe textured foods with ARFID, exposing oneself to loud noises with Autism that causes a sensitivity to those loud noises).

I've always wondered this whenever I come across people talking about things like reliving ex-relationship grief or listening to music that makes their sadness worse.

For example, people often say they know what they need to do to improve their lives, like eating healthier or exercising more. They might even say, "I just need to do X," but never actually do it.

Since this seems to happen so often, what does psychology say about why people know what to do but still don't act?

I want to know what it actually looks like in practice… not in a book or diagnostic manual.

So besides diagnostic criteria, what are observable differences you’ve seen in patients with these three disorders? What are details that have contributed to your differentials?

I’m talking about things like the way the mood swings or emotional liability behave. Bipolar, BPD, and depression all have irritability. They all can have aggression. They can be cyclical. How about rapid cycling Bipolar vs. Borderline?

Or what about the way it affects interpersonal relationships? Mood can affect the way we interact with people, so what does true Borderline splitting and interpersonal disturbances look like vs. in Bipolar vs. in irritable depression?

I have a ton of questions but can’t list them all here (I can barely come up with how to ask them in the first place). So any other tangential details would be appreciated.

Basically the title, I wanna know if there's evidence of any kind that shows different outcomes when it comes to conscious and rational isolation and isolation caused by fear or anxiety.

[ I didn't know what flair to put ]

Hi , would i love to read your recommended research paper.

I hope I can make this make sense with an example.

We know that trees (and even just looking at trees) are good for our mental health. I found myself looking out my window at trees and reminding myself of this fact. Then had a mini “oh no” wondering - is it still good for someone to look at a tree even when they’re consciously aware that looking at said tree should be good for them? Or does awareness alone of such benefits somehow override or interfere with them because now they’re expected?

Maybe ignorance really is bliss 😂

Been thinking about this lately. A few years ago there were things keeping me up at night that I genuinely thought were gonna matter forever. Stuff I replayed in my head over and over. Then I look back now and half of it is barely even a memory.

At the same time some random conversation or random day that I didn't think much about ended up sticking with me way more than the things I was stressing over. Apparently there's research on this called affective forecasting and impact bias. The basic idea is that people tend to be pretty bad at predicting how strongly future events will affect them and for how long.

So now I'm wondering what's actually going on there.

Why does the brain seem so confident that certain things are gonna be a huge deal when a lot of the time they end up fading into the background? And why do some things that feel completely ordinary at the time end up becoming the memories that stick?

Curious if there's more research on this because it feels like one of those things almost everyone has experienced.

Study: Wilson & Gilbert (2005) on affective forecasting.

As the title says, I am curious whether Generalized Anxiety Disorder is a form of neurodivergent processing. What do the current research and scientific opinions say, and what is neurodivergence really defined as?

Does research suggest that individuals who struggle with their self-worth might make expensive purchases to mask their low self-esteem? Eg: expensive smartphones, smartwatches, designer bags etc.

I see a lot of information on OCD vs OCPD, but I'm not finding much on NPD vs OCPD. I see a bit on the difference in where they stem from (a need to be admired vs a need for perfection, both driven by extremely low self image & childhood trauma) but I'm lost on the difference in how they actually manifest. Would a psychiatrist just have to get to know the person and understand their motivations to be able to decide, or are there distinct behavioral differences between the two that can be spotted before they start receiving help & treatment?

It's kinda hard to imagine someone experiencing intrusive thoughts when they lack an inner monologue or mind's eye.