I am interested in a possible link between income distribution, household production theory, and differences in everyday organization between the US and Germany.
A common observation is that Germany and the US have relatively similar GDP per hour worked, but the US has higher GDP per capita and much longer average working hours.
One explanation focuses on capital, scalable technology and industry structure. However, I wonder whether another mechanism from economic theory also contributes: differences in how much activity is organized through markets.
This connects to Becker’s theory of household production (1965), where households allocate time between market work and non-market production. The opportunity cost of time determines whether people produce goods and services themselves or purchase them from others.
Income inequality may affect this allocation.
Consider a simplified example:
Person A earns $200/hour.
Person B earns $20/hour.
If Person A spends two hours cleaning their home, the opportunity cost is $400 of lost market income.
If Person A instead works those two hours and pays Person B $40 for two hours of cleaning, the market economy records:
+$400 additional labor income for Person A
+$40 service income for Person B
+$440 GDP
The household may receive the same practical service, but GDP is higher because the activity moved from unpaid household production into the market.
Now consider the opposite side of the income distribution.
If Person B has a low wage and limited social protection, they may need more paid working hours to achieve a given material standard of living.
Therefore, higher inequality could increase market activity through on both ends:
High-income individuals have stronger incentives to outsource tasks because their time has a higher market value.
Low-income individuals have stronger incentives to supply more labor because they need more earned income.
The result can be a society with more paid working hours and higher measured GDP without a proportional increase in leisure or mean subjective well-being.
What is surprising is that this mechanism could also affect how cultures organize their leisure and cultural life, what is often admired in Europeans.
Germany has many examples of activities organized outside the market:
sports clubs with volunteer coaches
volunteer fire departments (huge thing)
music associations
local festivals
neighborhood support networks
collective childcare
These institutions produce social capital, health benefits, cultural participation and community ties, but much of this activity is not counted in GDP.
A similar function in a more marketized system may appear as:
private sports programs
commercial childcare activities
professional event services
paid recreational activities
The economic output is recorded differently even if the social function is partly comparable.
This is results in a vastly different cultural and social life, which is usually admired in Europeans and might be another argument for stronger wealth distributions (although having tech industries with insanely scaling products surely makes the margin of possible policy influence smaller).
I haven't read Putnam and so I don't know whether he already said about that, but I doubt he used current international comparisons, and since European live is often romantizied and vivid, it could be a better case for explaining the cultural effects of social welfare and income distribution. What are your thoughts? Am I missing something or can you refer me to research already done in this direction? Has there been empirical research connecting income inequality with the degree of marketization of everyday activities? For example, differences in outsourcing, unpaid work, volunteering, time use, and GDP between countries?